We read that on two occasions Jesus addressed Mary “Woman”and nowhere does He call her Mother. (Ref John 2:4 & John 19:25-27). Is this not a disrespect shown by Jesus Christ?
John's Gospel was the last of the four gospels to be written around 85-90 A.D. The purpose of his write up was to prove conclusively that Jesus is the Son of God and that all who believe in him will have eternal life. Ref. John 20:30,31
However John gives Mary, her rightful place in the history of salvation. The first woman (Eve) with the first man sinned and there began the degradation of humanity (Original Sin). But Mary, chosen by God to become the mother of the Saviour Jesus Christ replaced Eve, and with her begins a new humanity. Here we see the link between Genesis 3 and John 2:4 & 19:25-27.
In other words, the use of “Woman” once again hearkens back to Genesis, esp. to God’s promise of redemption. On Calvary, the prophecy of Genesis 3:15 is fulfilled. The woman is Mary.
Jesus assigns Mary a special relationship to those he has redeemed. The first woman was called Eve because she was “mother of all living” (Genesis 3:20). Mary now becomes the New Eve because she is the Mother of all believers. If we are Christ’s disciples, Mary is our Mother. Jesus wants us to take her into our own home. She must have won God’s favour.
Did Jesus actually used the right word by calling Mary “Woman”?
To Be Continued …
Our Lady, Seat of Wisdom…. Pray for us.
Complied by:
Eric K. Dagbui
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